Which factor most strongly influences an antigen’s immunogenicity?
a. Size
b. Complexity
c. Quantity
d. Foreignness
Which of the following correctly describes the secondary immune response?
a. It involves a lag or latent period.
b. IgM is the predominant antibody produced.
c. There is a significant increase in IgG levels.
d. Memory cells need to be generated first.
When asked about natural killer (NK) cells, how should a nurse explain their function?
a. NK cells only induce apoptosis independently.
b. NK cells target abnormal cells expressing MHC class I molecules.
c. NK cells lack antigen-specific receptors.
d. NK cells mature in the thymus gland.
Alloimmunity is defined as:
a. An immune response against tissues from another person.
b. Loss of tolerance to the body’s own antigens.
c. Exposure to environmental antigens.
d. Development of an anaphylactic reaction.
In a type I allergic reaction, what is the primary pathophysiologic event?
a. Antibodies attach to tissue-specific antigens.
b. Immune complexes deposit in blood vessel walls.
c. T lymphocytes drive the immune response, not antibodies.
d. IgE and mediators released from mast cells play a central role.
Autoimmunity occurs when:
a. Self-antigens trigger molecular mimicry.
b. Transplanted tissues are rejected by the immune system.
c. The immune system mistakenly attacks the body’s own antigens.
d. An acute transplant rejection occurs.
Secondary immune deficiencies may be caused by:
a. Excessive zinc intake in the diet.
b. Caring for an elderly parent with Alzheimer’s disease.
c. Use of aspirin as prescribed by a doctor.
d. Congenital or genetic defects in newborns.
How are red blood cells destroyed in cases of ABO blood type incompatibility?
a. Through natural killer cell activity.
b. By macrophage phagocytosis.
c. Via phagocytosis within the spleen.
d. Through complement system-mediated cell lysis.
What is the earliest time frame after sexual exposure to HIV that lab tests can detect infection?
a. 1 to 2 days
b. 4 to 10 days
c. 4 to 8 weeks
d. 2 to 4 months
Which characteristic describes exotoxins?
a. They are released during bacterial cell breakdown.
b. They are components of gram-negative bacterial cell walls.
c. They can trigger complement and coagulation pathways.
d. They are secreted during bacterial growth.
A patient reports mild fatigue and discomfort after contact with a family member who has the flu. Which stage of infection is most likely?
a. Convalescent stage
b. Incubation stage
c. Prodromal stage
d. Invasive stage
Which statement about parasitic infections is true?
a. Parasites attach to host cells using pili (fimbriae).
b. Candida albicans is classified as a parasitic infection.
c. Parasites are transmitted only from person to person.
d. Malaria is a common parasitic disease.
A person with HIV develops pneumonia caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii. What does this indicate?
a. The person has sufficient helper T cell counts.
b. The person is HIV-positive but asymptomatic.
c. The person is in early HIV infection stages.
d. The person’s condition has progressed to AIDS.
How do antibiotics typically work?
a. By protecting bacterial cell walls.
b. By blocking protein synthesis in bacteria.
c. By enhancing bacterial DNA replication.
d. By promoting folic acid production in bacteria.
Which dietary habit is linked to a lower risk of colon cancer?
a. Eating more dairy products
b. Reducing intake of high-fat foods
c. Increasing foods rich in vitamin C
d. Avoiding artificial food colorings
An individual with over 40 years of asbestos exposure is most at risk for which cancer type?
a. Bladder cancer
b. Leukemia
c. Stomach cancer
d. Lung cancer