NR 283 Exam 2

NR 283 Exam 2

Name

Chamberlain University

NR-283: Pathophysiology

Prof. Name

Date

NR 283 Exam 2

1. A nurse discovers her patient awake in the middle of the night, struggling to breathe and needing to sit or stand for relief. What condition does this patient have?
   A) Subjective Dyspnea
   B) Orthopnea
   C) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea
   D) Dyspnea on exertion
2. A nurse discovers her patient awake in the middle of the night, struggling to breathe and needing to sit or stand for relief. What condition does this patient have?
   A) Subjective Dyspnea
   B) Orthopnea
   C) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea
   D) Dyspnea on exertion
3. What is it called when a patient has a PaCO2 level higher than normal due to insufficient expiration?
   A. Hypercapnia
   B. Hyperventilation
   C. Hypocapnia
   D. Clubbing
4. What is it called when a patient has a PaCO2 level higher than normal due to insufficient expiration?
   A. Hypercapnia
   B. Hyperventilation
   C. Hypocapnia
   D. Clubbing
5. Which breathing pattern is associated with intense exercise and is characterized by an increased respiratory rate alongside larger tidal volumes?
   A. Labored breathing
   B. Cheyne-Stokes Respirations
   C. Normal breathing
   D. Kussmaul Respirations
6. Which breathing pattern is associated with intense exercise and is characterized by an increased respiratory rate alongside larger tidal volumes?
   A. Labored breathing
   B. Cheyne-Stokes Respirations
   C. Normal breathing
   D. Kussmaul Respirations
7. Hypoxemia refers to a deficiency of oxygen in the tissues.
   True or False
8. Hypoxemia refers to a deficiency of oxygen in the tissues.
   True or False
9. Which of the following can contribute to hypoxemia? (select all that apply)
   A. Damage to the alveolocapillary membrane
   B. Atelectasis
   C. Pulmonary embolus
   D. Pneumonia
10. Which of the following can contribute to hypoxemia? (select all that apply)
    A. Damage to the alveolocapillary membrane
    B. Atelectasis
    C. Pulmonary embolus
    D. Pneumonia
11. The accumulation of excess air in the pleural space resulting in a “one-way valve” effect is termed what?
    A. Spontaneous Pneumothorax
    B. Flail chest
    C. Tension Pneumothorax
    D. Atelectasis
12. The accumulation of excess air in the pleural space resulting in a “one-way valve” effect is termed what?
    A. Spontaneous Pneumothorax
    B. Flail chest
    C. Tension Pneumothorax
    D. Atelectasis
13. An increase in pus, cellular debris, and microorganisms in the pleural space is known as what?
    A. Pulmonary edema
    B. Transudative pleural effusion
    C. Pneumonia
    D. Empyema
14. An increase in pus, cellular debris, and microorganisms in the pleural space is known as what?
    A. Pulmonary edema
    B. Transudative pleural effusion
    C. Pneumonia
    D. Empyema
15. A frequent cause of acute respiratory distress syndrome is:
    A) Cardiac Disease
    B) Renal Disease
    C) Sepsis
    D) Compromised Chest Wall
16. A frequent cause of acute respiratory distress syndrome is:
    A) Cardiac Disease
    B) Renal Disease
    C) Sepsis
    D) Compromised Chest Wall
17. What leads to hypoxemia in ARDS?
    What leads to hypoxemia in ARDS?
    Because the alveolocapillary membrane becomes injured, allowing blood, cells, and debris to enter the alveoli, leading to some alveoli collapsing. When alveoli are filled with fluid or are collapsed, they cannot engage in gas exchange, preventing oxygen from reaching the blood.
18. A nurse is providing education to colleagues regarding the pathology of emphysema. Which of the following statements is correct?
    A. Excessive mucus production obstructs the small airways
    B. Inhalation of an allergen causes bronchospasm and mucus production
    C. Obstruction and air trapping result from tissue changes rather than mucus production
    D. Caused by community-acquired or nosocomial bacteria
19. A nurse is providing education to colleagues regarding the pathology of emphysema. Which of the following statements is correct?
    A. Excessive mucus production obstructs the small airways
    B. Inhalation of an allergen causes bronchospasm and mucus production
    C. Obstruction and air trapping result from tissue changes rather than mucus production
    D. Caused by community-acquired or nosocomial bacteria
20. Emphysema can be caused by which of the following? (select all that apply)
    A. Cigarette smoke
    B. Air pollutants
    C. Increased mucus glands
    D. Deficiency of an enzyme
21. Emphysema can be caused by which of the following? (select all that apply)
    A. Cigarette smoke
    B. Air pollutants
    C. Increased mucus glands
    D. Deficiency of an enzyme
22. A patient presents with fatigue, weight loss, loss of appetite, night sweats, and general anxiety. This patient has also been homeless for most of the past year. The nurse suspects which disease process?
    A. Chronic Bronchitis
    B. Asthma
    C. Pulmonary edema
    D. Tuberculosis
23. A patient presents with fatigue, weight loss, loss of appetite, night sweats, and general anxiety. This patient has also been homeless for most of the past year. The nurse suspects which disease process?
    A. Chronic Bronchitis
    B. Asthma
    C. Pulmonary edema
    D. Tuberculosis
24. A pulmonary embolism typically originates from where?
    A. Pulmonary vein
    B. Deep vein in the arm
    C. Deep vein in the thigh
    D. Pulmonary artery
25. A pulmonary embolism typically originates from where?
    A. Pulmonary vein
    B. Deep vein in the arm
    C. Deep vein in the thigh
    D. Pulmonary artery
26. Which statement best defines cor pulmonale?
    A. It is characterized by high pressure in the pulmonary vessels
    B. It results in increased workload for the left side of the heart
    C. It is known as pulmonary heart disease
    D. Early symptoms include productive cough and wheezing
27. Which statement best defines cor pulmonale?
    A. It is characterized by high pressure in the pulmonary vessels
    B. It results in increased workload for the left side of the heart
    C. It is known as pulmonary heart disease
    D. Early symptoms include productive cough and wheezing
28. Oxygenated blood flows through which structure?
    A. Superior Vena Cava
    B. Pulmonary Veins
    C. Pulmonary Arteries
    D. Coronary Veins
29. Oxygenated blood flows through which structure?
    A. Superior Vena Cava
    B. Pulmonary Veins
    C. Pulmonary Arteries
    D. Coronary Veins
30. What is the formula for cardiac output (CO)?
    CO = _ x __
    What does CO indicate?
    What factors influence cardiac output?
    What is the formula for cardiac output (CO)?
    CO = HR x SV_
    What does CO indicate?
    It reflects the heart’s performance or cardiac efficiency.
    What factors influence cardiac output?
    Preload
    Afterload
    Contractility
    Heart rate

31. Cardiac Question

    Chronic venous insufficiency can lead to varicose veins.

    True or False
32. Chronic venous insufficiency can lead to varicose veins.
    True or False, it’s actually the reverse.
33. Which of the following factors is included in Virchow’s Triad? (select all that apply)
    A. Immobility
    B. Use of birth control pills
    C. Damage to the venous valves
    D. History of varicose veins
34. Which of the following factors is included in Virchow’s Triad? (select all that apply)
    A. Immobility—leads to venous stasis
    B. Use of birth control pills—contributes to hypercoagulability
    C. Damage to the venous valves—indicates endothelial injury
    D. History of varicose veins
35. Which of the following will not increase due to primary hypertension?
    A. Peripheral resistance
    B. Circulating volume
    C. Salt and water excretion
    D. Arterial vasoconstriction
36. Which of the following will not increase due to primary hypertension?
    A. Peripheral resistance
    B. Circulating volume
    C. Salt and water excretion
    D. Arterial vasoconstriction
37. Malignant hypertension is a chronic form of hypertension that results in damage to the heart, kidneys, brain, or eyes.
    True or False
38. Malignant hypertension is a chronic form of hypertension that results in damage to the heart, kidneys, brain, or eyes.
    True or False
39. Complicated hypertension is the chronic form; malignant hypertension is the rapidly progressive type.
40. What is true regarding aneurysms?
    A. The most common cause is infection
    B. Symptoms will always be present with an aneurysm
    C. A saccular aneurysm creates outpouchings on both sides of the vessel wall
    D. False aneurysms can arise from hematoma formation
41. What is true regarding aneurysms?
    A. The most common cause is infection
    B. Symptoms will always be present with an aneurysm
    C. A saccular aneurysm creates outpouchings on both sides of the vessel wall
    D. False aneurysms can arise from hematoma formation
42. Reducing a patient’s cholesterol can
43. significantly reduce the risk of developing atherosclerosis.
    True or False
44. Reducing a patient’s cholesterol can significantly reduce the risk of developing atherosclerosis.
    True or False
45. Which of the following are risk factors for developing atherosclerosis? (select all that apply)
    A. Obesity
    B. Smoking
    C. Hypertension
    D. High HDL levels
46. Which of the following are risk factors for developing atherosclerosis? (select all that apply)
    A. Obesity
    B. Smoking
    C. Hypertension
    D. High HDL levels
47. What is the term for the formation of a clot within a blood vessel?
    A. Thrombosis
    B. Hemorrhage
    C. Embolism
    D. Aneurysm
48. What is the term for the formation of a clot within a blood vessel?
    A. Thrombosis
    B. Hemorrhage
    C. Embolism
    D. Aneurysm
49. A patient presents with a facial droop, arm weakness, and speech difficulties. The nurse suspects which type of stroke?
    A. Ischemic stroke
    B. Hemorrhagic stroke
    C. Transient Ischemic Attack
    D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
50. A patient presents with a facial droop, arm weakness, and speech difficulties. The nurse suspects which type of stroke?
    A. Ischemic stroke
    B. Hemorrhagic stroke
    C. Transient Ischemic Attack
    D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
51. The patient is experiencing hemiplegia on the right side of their body. This indicates a problem in which hemisphere of the brain?
    A. Left hemisphere
    B. Right hemisphere
    C. Cerebellum
    D. Brainstem
52. The patient is experiencing hemiplegia on the right side of their body. This indicates a problem in which hemisphere of the brain?
    A. Left hemisphere
    B. Right hemisphere
    C. Cerebellum
    D. Brainstem
53. A patient presents with a “thunderclap headache” and has a history of hypertension. The nurse suspects which condition?
    A. TIA
    B. Stroke
    C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
    D. Migraine
54. A patient presents with a “thunderclap headache” and has a history of hypertension. The nurse suspects which condition?
    A. TIA
    B. Stroke
    C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
    D. Migraine
55. The nurse is monitoring a patient with heart failure. Which finding would be of greatest concern?
    A. Increased heart rate
    B. Decreased urine output
    C. Sudden weight gain
    D. Mild peripheral edema
56. The nurse is monitoring a patient with heart failure. Which finding would be of greatest concern?
    A. Increased heart rate
    B. Decreased urine output
    C. Sudden weight gain
    D. Mild peripheral edema
57. In heart failure, which of the following would most likely cause pulmonary congestion?
    A. Right-sided heart failure
    B. Left-sided heart failure
    C. Isolated heart failure
    D. Compensated heart failure
58. In heart failure, which of the following would most likely cause pulmonary congestion?
    A. Right-sided heart failure
    B. Left-sided heart failure
    C. Isolated heart failure
    D. Compensated heart failure
59. A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?
    A. Peripheral edema
    B. Jugular venous distension
    C. Pulmonary congestion
    D. Hepatomegaly
60. A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?
    A. Peripheral edema
    B. Jugular venous distension
    C. Pulmonary congestion
    D. Hepatomegaly
61. In chronic heart failure, what does the term “decompensation” refer to?
    A. The heart is unable to pump adequately to meet the body’s needs
    B. The patient exhibits an improvement in symptoms
    C. The patient develops compensatory mechanisms to improve cardiac output
    D. The heart’s workload is reduced
62. In chronic heart failure, what does the term “decompensation” refer to?
    A. The heart is unable to pump adequately to meet the body’s needs
    B. The patient exhibits an improvement in symptoms
    C. The patient develops compensatory mechanisms to improve cardiac output
    D. The heart’s workload is reduced
63. The nurse recognizes that a patient with heart failure who has a low ejection fraction is likely to experience:
    A. Increased oxygen demand on the heart
    B. Increased blood volume in the heart
    C. Impaired contractility of the heart
    D. Decreased venous return to the heart
64. The nurse recognizes that a patient with heart failure who has a low ejection fraction is likely to experience:
    A. Increased oxygen demand on the heart
    B. Increased blood volume in the heart
    C. Impaired contractility of the heart
    D. Decreased venous return to the heart
65. In a patient with heart failure, which medication is likely to be prescribed to reduce preload?
    A. Diuretics
    B. Beta-blockers
    C. ACE inhibitors
    D. Digoxin
66. In a patient with heart failure, which medication is likely to be prescribed to reduce preload?
    A. Diuretics
    B. Beta-blockers
    C. ACE inhibitors
    D. Digoxin
67. Which of the following are complications associated with heart failure? (select all that apply)
    A. Thromboembolism
    B. Renal failure
    C. Liver dysfunction
    D. Pulmonary edema
68. Which of the following are complications associated with heart failure? (select all that apply)
    A. Thromboembolism
    B. Renal failure
    C. Liver dysfunction
    D. Pulmonary edema

NR 283 Exam 2